I like the post for its scatter plots. Here is my favorite plot from his post:

It reminds me of the Phillips curve plots from the 1960s and 1970s (but in reverse).

The next time you see zeros roll over on your odometer you will understand why that always feels like a watershed event. Your car is only a mile older but it just took a discrete drop in value.Click through to the post to see why he concludes this.
And the way modern America won was characteristic. Southerners were better warriors — man for man, they almost always outperformed Union armies, although the gap narrowed over time. But the North excelled at the arts of peace — that is, in industry and ability to get things done. The North couldn’t stop Bedford Forrest from raiding supply lines; but it could repair track incredibly fast. And it was that Northern superiority in logistics, in production, that eventually proved decisive.The many comments on the post are also interesting reading (if not for their analysis, for their variety of impressions).

Now since I joined the A-List program, I’ve typically gotten boarding numbers in the A20s-A30 range. I’ve also been higher or lower than that. It’s worked well. I’ve never had a middle seat. I’ve usually gotten the exact seat I want, even.This was our first time on Southwest and we booked the flight because it was cheapest among all of our options. Guess what our boarding priority was. That's right. We were C1 and C2.But yesterday, I was taken aback. I checked in and got a B1 boarding spot. While I know the A-List program doesn’t guarantee an A spot, I still wondered how this could happen.
Maybe if I was in the bottom decile in high school, competing with the people around me to not be the one who fails, and everyone else in my decile was cheating, and the risk of getting caught wasn't too high...well it could easily be not just selfishly optimal, but in fact even socially optimal for me to cheat. Is academic honesty about fairness? What could possibly feel less fair than me failing because everyone around me cheated?I generally like the post as a push-back against the immorality of cheating. As Xan points out in the post, cheating can be morally ambiguous. This also has me wonder. Why do we punish cheating in the first place? What role does it serve? In classrooms and political arenas, cheating/corruption is frowned upon and punished when it is exposed. It also seems to me that this is a persistent fact that this is how cheating is treated. Why is this so?
Here’s the point. If the public good is avoidable, you can increase the user tax (by bundling ads) and trust that those who don’t value the public good very much will stop using it. Given the level of the tax it would be inefficient for them to use it. Knowing that this inefficiency can be avoided you have more flexibility to raise the tax, effectively price discriminating high-value users.YouTube videos are a nice example of avoidable public goods. You don't have to watch them, but you can and I'll have a hard time preventing you from pirating the video if I try to charge you for access. Consistent with Ely's theory, YouTube videos are also largely ad-sponsored.
I came to this post from a link from Cafe Hayek to a thorough post by someone named iowahawk, who had an interesting response to Krugman:But here’s the thing: While low spending may sound good in the abstract, what it amounts to in practice is low spending on children, who account directly or indirectly for a large part of government outlays at the state and local level.
And in low-tax, low-spending Texas, the kids are not all right. The high school graduation rate, at just 61.3 percent, puts Texas 43rd out of 50 in state rankings. Nationally, the state ranks fifth in child poverty; it leads in the percentage of children without health insurance. And only 78 percent of Texas children are in excellent or very good health, significantly below the national average.
Perhaps because a state's "average ACT/SAT" is, for all intents and purposes, a proxy for the percent of white people who live there. In fact, the lion's share of state-to-state variance in test scores is accounted for by differences in ethnic composition. Minority students - regardless of state residence - tend to score lower than white students on standardized test, and the higher the proportion of minority students in a state the lower its overall test scores tend to be.Please note: this has nothing to do with innate ability or aptitude. Quite to the contrary, I believe the test gap between minority students and white students can be attributed to differences in socioeconomic status. And poverty. And yes, racism. And yes, family structure. Whatever combination of reasons, the gap exists, and it's mathematical sophistry to compare the combined average test scores in a state like Wisconsin (4% black, 4% Hispanic) with a state like Texas (12% black, 30% Hispanic).
The post by iowahawk goes on to compare tests scores by race between Wisconsin and Texas for a whole suite of comparisons of educational performance between the two states (broken down by race). Of the 18 comparisons (race-grade-specific test score by state), 17 of them favor Texas.
This reversal of trend is a phenomenon known as Simpson's paradox:
In probability and statistics, Simpson's paradox (or the Yule-Simpson effect) is a paradox in which a correlation (trend) present in different groups is reversed when the groups are combined. This result is often encountered in social-science and medical-science statistics, and it occurs when frequency data are hastily given causal interpretations. Simpson's Paradox disappears when causal relations are brought into consideration (see Implications to decision making).
The picture from Wikipedia is nice too:
To draw the analogy to the picture, Krugman was reporting along the downward-sloping dotted black line; iowabuck was reporting along the colored (red and blue) upward-sloping lines.